Showing posts with label zWCI. Show all posts
Showing posts with label zWCI. Show all posts

December 30, 2019

What’s the trouble with some Canadian economists?

Comment on Nick Rowe on ‘Increased Price Flexibility is Destabilising in New Keynesian Models’

Blog-Reference

The general trouble with economists is that they are either stupid or corrupt or both. The major approaches — Walrasianism, Keynesianism, Marxianism, Austrianism, MMT — are mutually contradictory, axiomatically false, materially/formally inconsistent and all got the foundational economic concept profit wrong. Economics is a failed science from Adam Smith/Karl Marx onward to New Keynesianism, DSGE, and MMT but economists cling desperately to their provably false proto-scientific garbage.

This is not only stupid but amounts to a violation of scientific standards: “In economics we should strive to proceed, wherever we can, exactly according to the standards of the other, more advanced, sciences, where it is not possible, once an issue has been decided, to continue to write about it as if nothing had happened.” (Morgenstern 1941) #1-#14

What is needed in economics is NOT repetitive critique and futile cosmetic repair but a Paradigm Shift. This is long known: “There is another alternative: to formulate a completely new research program and conceptual approach. As we have seen, this is often spoken of, but there is still no indication of what it might mean.” (Ingrao et al. 1990).

The specific trouble with some Canadian economists is (i) that they cling to false approaches and a failed methodology, (ii) that they have NO idea how to perform a Paradigm Shift, but (iii) that they prevent it by (a) stubbornly recycling provably false approaches, and (b), by actively suppressing critique and refutation in the econblogosphere.#15-#17

In this, though, the agenda-pushing Canadians are by no means alone but follow a widespread pattern.#18, #19

Egmont Kakarot-Handtke

References


#1 Is Nick Rowe stupid or corrupt or both?
#2 I is never equal S and even Nick Rowe will eventually grasp it
#3 Nick Rowe’s soapbubbling about money
#4 Worthless Canadian model bricolage
#5 It has been said before but economists still don’t get it
#6 Nick Rowe: Bury me at the end of coal-pit
#7 How economists missed out on the essential relationship of economics
#8 Another X-mas fantasy about IS curves
#9 Worthwhile Canadian filibuster?
#10 DSGE and profit―forget it! MMT and profit―forget it!
#11 How Keynes got macro wrong and Allais got it right
#12 Kalecki and Keynes: The double macroeconomic false start
#13 Are economics professors really that incompetent? Yes!
#14 Cryptoeconomics ― the best of Nick Rowe’s spam folder
#15 #EconBlocker Nick Rowe

Source: Twitter

#16 #EconBlocker George Selgin

Source: Twitter

#17 #EconBlocker

Source: Twitter

#18 Economists/MMTers: agenda pushers, distractors, blockers, muters, censors
#19 Economics ― the science that never was

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Graphic AXEC123e

December 27, 2018

#DrainTheScientificSwamp

Links on Nick Rowe’s ‘Explaining S=I: Inventories vs Adding up Individuals’ on Dec 18

Blog-Reference

Macroeconomics is one of the most embarrassing failures in the history of modern science. The fact is that economists do NOT understand to this day that I=S is provably false since Keynes.

Egmont Kakarot-Handtke


Related 'Flawed logic' and 'Mr. Keynes, Prof. Krugman, IS-LM, and the End of Economics as We Know It'.

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REPLY to Roger Sparks on Dec 27

I is NEVER equal to S. Therefore, it is a futile exercise to ‘explain’ I=S with some silly examples.

Here is the proof.

The elementary production-consumption economy is given with three macroeconomic axioms: (A1) Yw=WL wage income Yw is equal to wage rate W times working hours. L, (A2) O=RL output O is equal to productivity R times working hours L, (A3) C=PX consumption expenditures C is equal to price P times quantity bought/sold X.

In the elementary production-consumption economy, three configurations are logically possible: (i) consumption expenditures are equal to wage income C=Yw, (ii) C is less than Yw, (iii) C is greater than Yw.
  • In case (i), the monetary saving of the household sector Sm≡Yw−C is zero, and the monetary profit of the business sector Qm≡C−Yw, too, is zero. The product market is cleared, i.e., X=O in all three cases. Accordingly, the market-clearing price as the dependent variable is given by P=C/X=W/R.
  • In case (ii), monetary saving Sm is positive and the business sector makes a loss, i.e., Qm is negative. The market-clearing price P is less than W/R.
  • In case (iii), monetary saving Sm is negative, i.e., the household sector dissaves, and the business sector makes a profit, i.e., Qm is positive.

It always holds Qm≡−Sm, in other words, the business sector’s profit is equal to the household sector’s dissaving, and the business sector’s loss is equal to the household sector’s saving. In still other words, saving is NOT equal to investment because there is NO investment in the elementary production-consumption economy.

Under the condition that the price remains constant, the market does not clear if saving is greater than zero, i.e., O−X>0 if Sm>0, i.e., the business sector’s inventory increases. The valuation of the inventory is NOT predetermined. For example, if it is valued with zero, then inventory investment is zero and I is NOT equal to Sm. If it is valued higher, then inventory investment is positive but still unequal to Sm.#1

Keynes started macroeconomics with false premises and ended with false conclusions: “Income = value of output = consumption + investment. Saving = income − consumption. Therefore saving = investment.” (GT, p. 63)

Keynes’ premise that income = value of output is false. From the correct macroeconomic axioms follows:
(1) Qm≡−Sm in the elementary production-consumption economy,
(2) Qm≡I−Sm in the elementary investment economy,
(3) Qm≡Yd+I−Sm in the investment economy with profit distribution,
(4) Qm≡Yd+I−Sm+(G−T)+(X−M) in the general case with government in an open economy.

Simple algebra tells everyone that saving is NEVER equal to investment. Both orthodox and heterodox economists are too stupid for the elementary mathematics that underlies macroeconomic accounting.#2


#1 Primary and Secondary Markets
#2 For more details, see cross-references Refutation of I=S

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REPLY to Roger Sparks on Dec 29

Nick Rowe writes: “It’s easy to teach students the arithmetic showing that actual saving must equal actual investment (S=I).” and “S=I is an accounting identity, and accounting identities are true by definition.”

The fact is that “S=I is an accounting identity, and accounting identities are true by definition,” is one of the most stupid statements in the history of the failed/fake science of economics. #1, #2, #3 And the fact that all student generations since Keynes parrot this manifest arithmetic garbage is a metric of the desperately low IQ of economics students.

Take notice that the correct accounting identity for the elementary investment economy reads Qm≡I−Sm, that is, monetary profit Qm is the difference between investment expenditures of the business sector I and monetary saving of the household sector Sm.

Saving has never been nor will ever be equal to investment. So, ‘explaining’ I=S is not easy, just the opposite, it is impossible.

The fact that economists still claim ― 80+ years after Keynes committed the lethal blunder ― that I equals S is due to their utter scientific incompetence. This thread is the very proof that Nick Rowe and Roger Sparks and the rest (except Jamie, who got it: “This makes me want to scream in frustration”) are too stupid for the elementary mathematics that underlies macroeconomic accounting.#4, #5


#1 Wikipedia and the promotion of economists’ idiotism
#2 MMT and the single most stupid physicist
#3 Truth by definition? The Profit Theory has been axiomatically false for 200+ years
#4 A crash course in macro accounting
#5 For details, see cross-references Accounting

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REPLY to Nick Rowe on Jan 1

You write: “Here’s the arithmetic of S=I: Define Y as market value of newly-produced final goods (and services). In a closed economy … we divide Y into consumption goods C and investment goods I, so Y=C+I. And we define saving S as S=Y−C. Substitute the first equation into the second to get S=Y−C=C+I−C=I, so S=I.”

This is Keynes’ argument of GT p. 63. It is false because Keynes got macroeconomic profit wrong: “His Collected Writings show that he wrestled to solve the Profit Puzzle up till the semi-final versions of his GT but in the end he gave up and discarded the draft chapter dealing with it.” (Tómasson et al.)

Let this sink in: the economist Keynes NEVER understood the foundational concept of his subject matter. And after-Keynesians NEVER spotted Keynes’ blunder.

In order to get the “arithmetic” right, one has to go back to the most elementary macroeconomic configuration, that is, the elementary production-consumption economy, which consists of the household and the business sector.

In this elementary economy, three configurations are logically possible: (i) consumption expenditures are equal to wage income C=Yw, (ii) C is less than Yw, (iii) C is greater than Yw.

  • In case (i), the monetary saving of the household sector S≡Yw−C is zero, and the monetary profit of the business sector Q≡C−Yw, too, is zero. The product market is cleared, i.e., X=O, i.e., there is NO change of inventory.
  • In case (ii), monetary saving S is positive and the business sector makes a loss, i.e., Q is negative.
  • In case (iii), monetary saving S is negative, i.e., the household sector dissaves, and the business sector makes a profit, i.e., Q is positive.

It always holds Q≡−S, in other words, at the heart of the monetary economy is an identity: the business sector’s surplus (deficit) equals the household sector’s deficit (surplus). In other words, profit is the counterpart of dissaving, and loss is the counterpart of saving. This is the most elementary form of the macroeconomic Profit Law.

For the elementary investment economy, the Profit Law reads Q≡I−S. As everyone can see, there is NO such thing as an accounting identity I=S or an equilibrium of saving and investment.

For 80+ years, I=S is a monument of economists’ mathematical incompetence, and “S=I is an accounting identity, and accounting identities are true by definition” will forever stand out as one of the most idiotic statements in the history of so-called economic thought.

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REPLY to Roger Sparks on Jan 1

You say: “You can see that business would control the pricing of the products consumed but households would control whether consumption (the second exchange) would occur and when.”

What I indeed see is that you are one of those undereducated blatherers who overpopulate economics. The point at issue is the macroeconomic “arithmetic” and not human behavior/control. More specifically, the point at issue is the refutation of the brain-dead assertion: “S=I is an accounting identity, and accounting identities are true by definition.”

The point at issue is that I=S is mathematically false and by NO means “true by definition” and that economists are too stupid for macroeconomic accounting#1 and that they, after 200+ years, still do not understand what profit is.

Make no mistake, I=S is not only disqualifying for you and Nick Rowe but for the entire profession.#2

In the elementary production-consumption economy, the price is under the condition of market clearing, i.e., X=O, and budget balancing, i.e., C=Yw, the dependent variable, i.e., P=W/R. If the condition of market-clearing is dropped and the firm sets the price, then the market is NOT cleared and the change of inventory is given by O−X.

All these cases have been dealt with elsewhere #3, and they are NOT relevant to the point at issue. So, they can be left out for the moment. Again, the point is that investment is NEVER equal to saving and that Nick Rowe’s attempt to explain I=S is 200+ light years beside the point, as usual.#4

This is the state of economics: Walrasian microfoundations are false and Keynesian macrofoundations are false. There is NO economics that satisfies the criteria of science, only senseless blather.


#1 The Common Error of Common Sense: An Essential Rectification of the Accounting Approach
#2 Mr. Keynes, Prof. Krugman, IS-LM, and the End of Economics as We Know It
#3 Primary and Secondary Markets
#4 Cryptoeconomics ― the best of Nick Rowe’s spam folder

September 18, 2018

There is NO such thing as a “labor share of income”

Comment on Stephen Gordon on ‘Why do we care about the labour share of income?’

Blog-Reference

Stephen Gordon summarizes: “A lot has been said and written about the decline in the labour share of income, usually calculated as total employee compensation divided by nominal GDP. This decline is generally regarded as a negative development: the reduction in the share of income going to workers is interpreted as a symptom of suppressed wage growth and of increased income inequality.”

Indeed, a lot has been said and written about income, wages, profits, and all is false because economists failed for 200+ years to get the concept of profit straight. As the Palgrave Dictionary summarizes: “A satisfactory theory of profits is still elusive.” (Desai, 2008) #1 In other words, economists have NO idea what the pivot of their subject matter is.

Because profit is ill-defined, income is ill-defined, and by consequence, saving is ill-defined. Monetary profit, to begin with, is NOT a flow of income like wage income, but the difference of flows. Distributed profit is income, but profit is NOT income. Distributed profit and profit are NOT the same things.

By consequence, total income is NOT the sum of wages and profits, #2, which in turn means that there is NO “profit share of income” and by consequence no “wage share of income”. This means that the content of this thread, comments included, is vacuous blather because all are based on false premises.  #3, #4, #5, #6

Without true profit theory, there is no true distribution theory. The axiomatically correct Profit Law is given as Qm≡Yd+(I−Sm)+(G−T)+(X−M) (i) and this reduces to Qm≡(I−Sm)+(G−T) (ii) for Yd, X, M=0; Legend: Qm monetary profit/loss, Yd distributed profit, I investment expenditure, Sm monetary saving/dissaving, G government expenditures, T taxes, X exports, M imports. Total profit Q is the sum of monetary and nonmonetary profit, i.e., Q≡Qm+Qn (iii).

Accordingly, the so-called “labor share” λ ― which is NOT a “share” but a quotient ― is defined as the relation of wage income Yw to the sum of wage income and total profit Q, that is, λ≡Yw/(Yw+Q) with Q given by (iii) above.

The fact is that neither market power nor declining unionization nor automation can account for a falling “labor share” λ. The main drivers of increasing overall profit have been, in the past decades, the increased deficit spending of the household sector and the government sector, which translates into an ever-growing private/public debt.

Traditional distribution theory and the concept of a wage/profit “share” is abysmal proto-scientific garbage since the founding fathers. #7, #8

Egmont Kakarot-Handtke


#1 The Profit Theory is False Since Adam Smith. What About the True Distribution Theory?
#2 How the Intelligent Non-Economist Can Refute Every Economist Hands Down
#3 Profit and distribution: a primer
#4 Profit and the decline of labor’s nominal share (I)
#5 Profit, income, and the Humpty Dumpty Fallacy
#6 For details of the big picture, see cross-references Profit
#7 Ricardo, too, got profit theory wrong
#8 Economists simply don’t get it

Related 'Truth by definition? The Profit Theory has been axiomatically false for 200+ years' and Links on McKinsey’s ‘A new look at the declining labor share of income in the United States’ and 'There is NO such thing as a “labor share of income”’ and 'Profit and the decline of workers’ nominal share (II)’ and 'Profit and the decline of labor’s nominal share (I)’ and 'Income Distribution, Profit, and Real Shares

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Source FRED taken from WTF Happened In 1971?





Twitter/X Feb 10, 2026 Because profit is not income, there is no profit share of income

July 1, 2018

The miracle cure of economists’ micro-macro schizo

Comment on Nick Rowe on ‘Micro Profs teaching Intro Macro’

Blog-Reference and Blog-Reference on Jul 3 and Blog-Reference Link EV

“Could it be that there is something deeply wrong with mainstream economics … ?” (Blaug, 1984) Sooner or later, the intelligent student of economics arrives at this critical juncture. Starting with Samuelson’s prototype of 1948, economics textbooks consist of micro and macro, and it is obvious that the two parts do not fit together. #1 The cognitive dissonance is usually dispelled as follows: “Micro is a solid, cogent set of ideas that was carefully developed over several centuries. Macro was a desperate and doomed attempt to explain the Depression. Bad theories, inconsistent with micro and not even internally consistent, spouting nonsense like Y=C+I+G, AS/AD, IS/LM, and MV=PY.” (Sproul)

This is one of the many delusions of the representative economist. The fact is that microeconomics is proto-scientific garbage and macroeconomics is proto-scientific garbage, and the synthesis of the two is proto-scientific garbage squared. This is state-of-the-art economics, and teachers teach it, and students swallow it. #2 Economics has been for 200+ years now what Feynman called a cargo cult science.

This is the methodological core problem: “In order to tell the politicians and practitioners something about causes and best means, the economist needs the true theory or else he has not much more to offer than educated common sense or his personal opinion.” (Stigum)

Clearly, economists lack the true theory. It is pretty obvious that these cargo cult scientists never understood what methodology is all about. Aristotle put it thusly: “When the premises are certain, true, and primary, and the conclusion formally follows from them, this is demonstration, and produces scientific knowledge of a thing.”

Here are the premises for everyone to evaluate. The (Walrasian) microfoundations approach is defined by this verbalized axiom set: “HC1 economic agents have preferences over outcomes; HC2 agents individually optimize subject to constraints; HC3 agent choice is manifest in interrelated markets; HC4 agents have full relevant knowledge; HC5 observable outcomes are coordinated, and must be discussed with reference to equilibrium states.” (Weintraub) The (Keynesian) macrofoundations approach is defined by this set of foundational propositions: “Income = value of output = consumption + investment. Saving = income − consumption. Therefore saving = investment.” (GT, p. 63)

Because both the microfoundations approach and the macrofoundations approach are axiomatically false, a Paradigm Shift is imperative. Who accepts Walrasian micro or Keynesian macro is forever outside of science.

The microfoundations approach is bottom-up and runs with necessity into the Fallacy of Composition. The macrofoundations approach is top-down and proceeds by successive differentiation until one arrives at the individual agent. Differentiation is the opposite of bottom-up or aggregation. Keynes was right in moving from microfoundations to macrofoundations, but due to his scientific incompetence, he ultimately messed up the Paradigm Shift. #3

This is the starter set of the correct macrofoundations approach. (A0) The objectively given and most elementary systemic configuration of the economy consists of the household and the business sector, which in turn consists initially of one giant fully integrated firm. (A1) Yw=WL wage income Yw is equal to wage rate W times working hours L, (A2) O=RL output O is equal to productivity R times working hours L, (A3) C=PX consumption expenditure C is equal to price P times quantity bought/sold X.

These premises are certain, true, and primary, and therefore satisfy all methodological requirements. The set of premises is minimalistic; that is, it cannot be reduced further, only expanded. The graphical representation of the elementary production-consumption economy is given under the label of Graphic.  #4, #5, #6


Under the condition of market-clearing X=O and budget-balancing C=Yw follows the macroeconomic Law of Supply and Demand P=W/R.

From the definition of monetary saving/dissaving Sm≡Yw−C and of monetary profit/loss Qm≡C−Yw follows Qm≡−Sm, i.e., the most elementary form of the macroeconomic Profit Law.

The average stock of transaction money is M=κYw under the condition of budget balancing.

Given the minimalist core propositions (A1) to (A3), one has now to proceed top-down by successive differentiation, i.e., two firms ― one market, two firms ― two markets, and so on to n firms ― m markets.

It is important to realize that macroeconomic axioms are composed of measurable variables. This is the precondition for testing the derived complex relationships, i.e., the systemic economic laws, and this, in turn, is the precondition of final corroboration or refutation, as the case may be.

The behavior-free objective-systemic macrofoundations fully replace the false Walrasian microfoundations and the false Keynesian macrofoundations. Economics leaves the proto-scientific stage and becomes ― what it falsely has claimed for more than two centuries ― a science.

Egmont Kakarot-Handtke


#1 The father of modern economics and his imbecile kids
#2 Fact of life: your econ prof is scientifically incompetent
#3 How Keynes got macro wrong and Allais got it right
#4 Graphic AXEC31 Elementary production-consumption economy
#5 Geometrical Exposition of Structural Axiomatic Economics
#6 Economics for Economists

Related 'Cryptoeconomics ― the best of Nick Rowe’s spam folder' and 'Is Nick Rowe stupid or corrupt or both?' and 'It has been said before but economists still don’t get it' and 'Confused Confusers: How to Stop Thinking Like an Economist and Start Thinking Like a Scientist' and 'Yes, economics is a bogus science' and 'Schizonomics' and 'The Logical Interface Between Objective Macrofoundations and Subjective Valuations' and 'Your economics is refuted on all counts: here is the real thing'. For details of the big picture, see cross-references Axiomatization.

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Graphic AXEC137b Extended macrofoundations. Behavior is formally integrated as the Propensity Function (last line)


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REPLY to Nick Rowe on Jun 2

You say: “Nobody knows what is going on!”

Walrasian microeconomists and Keynesian macroeconomists never had any clue, indeed, but economics is in the process of replacing them. See The miracle cure of economists’ micro-macro schizo.

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REPLY to Avraam Jack Dectis on Jul 5

You say: “Plenty of good Econ 101 textbooks out there.”

This is one of the many delusions of the representative economist. The fact is that microeconomics is proto-scientific garbage and macroeconomics is proto-scientific garbage, and the synthesis of the two is proto-scientific garbage squared. #1 This is state-of-the-art economics, and teachers teach it, and students swallow it. Economics has been, for 200+ years now, what Feynman called a cargo cult science.




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REPLY to Nick Rowe on Jul 12

The microfoundations approach has been methodologically defined as follows: “As with any Lakatosian research program, the neo-Walrasian program is characterized by its hardcore, heuristics, and protective belts. Without asserting that the following characterization is definitive, I have argued that the program is organized around the following propositions: HC1 economic agents have preferences over outcomes; HC2 agents individually optimize subject to constraints; HC3 agent choice is manifest in interrelated markets; HC4 agents have full relevant knowledge; HC5 observable outcomes are coordinated, and must be discussed with reference to equilibrium states. By definition, the hard-core propositions are taken to be true and irrefutable by those who adhere to the program. ‘Taken to be true’ means that the hard-core functions like axioms for a geometry, maintained for the duration of study of that geometry.” (Weintraub, 1985, Joan Robinson’s Critique of Equilibrium: An Appraisal, p. 147)

In order to be applicable, HC2 requires a lot of auxiliary assumptions, most prominently a well-behaved/differentiable production function. #1

HC2 introduces marginalism, which is the all-pervasive principle of Orthodoxy. HC2, though, and HC4 and HC5 are plain NONENTITIES, that is, they have no more reality content than the Easter Bunny, dancing angels on a pinpoint, the Tooth Fairy, or Pegasus.

The methodological fact of the matter is that ALL models that take just one NONENTITY into the premises are a priori false. And methodology tells us that if the premises are false, the whole analytical superstructure is false. Therefore, the standard microfoundations approach with all its variants and derivatives from Jevons/Walras/Menger up to DSGE is methodologically false.

To put NONENTITIES into the premises is the defining characteristic of fairy tales, science fiction, theology, Hollywood movies, politics, propaganda, cargo cult science, and microfounded economics.

Not only constrained optimization, i.e., HC2, has to be dismissed, but the whole set of behavioral axioms. Microfoundations have to be fully replaced by objective-systemic macrofoundations. This is called a paradigm shift. #2

Teaching/studying behavioral optimization, just like teaching/studying epicycles, is a thing of the proto-scientific past.




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REPLY to Nick Rowe on Jul 16

Not only is the microfoundations approach axiomatically false, but also the macrofoundations approach. For the lethal methodological blunder, see Wikipedia and the promotion of economists’ idiotism (II).

Teaching/studying Walrasian Micro and Keynesian Macro is a thing of the proto-scientific past.

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REPLY to Livio de Matteo on Jul 23

Both the Walrasian microfoundations approach and the Keynesian macrofoundations approach are provably false. Economists are failed/fake scientists.#1 To this day, they do not know how the economy works. Since Adam Smith, they do not know what profit is #2, but they filibuster about the Russia-America CoDominium: an issue that is NOT AT ALL their business. #3

Time to end the shrunken heads perversity called economics.


June 25, 2018

It has been said before but economists still don’t get it

Comment on Nick Rowe on ‘Hydraulic Monetarism’

Blog-Reference and Blog-Reference

Nick Rowe concludes: “I’ve said all this before (and it’s all in Yeager and Clower and others). But maybe I’ve said it clearer this time.”

It has been said before: microfounded economics from utility maximization to supply-demand-equilibrium is false for 150+ years but one fraction of economists do not grasp it (= Orthodoxy) and the other fraction has never come forward with a superior alternative (= Heterodoxy). The theory of money circles in the endless loop of repetition ― except for MMT.

MMT has made the valid point that orthodox monetary theory is stuck with ridiculous barter stories and entirely misses the reality of fiat money. Fiat money does not circulate but is permanently created and destroyed. So, there is no fixed stock of money, to begin with. Let us call this lethal blunder of Orthodoxy the Moneybag Fallacy.

The Moneybag Fallacy was rectified by Wicksell and his giro system but for some reason, the news never illuminated the mental darkness of the Quantity Theory folks.

In the monetary economy, there is no direct barter, i.e. part of the stock of good 1 against part of the stock of good 2, but indirect barter, i.e. flow of labor time against the flow of goods. Money is created by wage payments and destroyed by consumption expenditures. In the most elementary case C=Yw, that is, consumption expenditures are equal to wage income, that is, money is zero at the beginning of the period under consideration, is then created and destroyed through the transactions between the business and the household sector, and is zero at the end of the period. NO moneybag there! No circulation there! NO hydraulics there!

In the elementary production-consumption economy, three configurations are logically possible: (i) consumption expenditures are equal to wage income C=Yw, (ii) C is less than Yw, (iii) C is greater than Yw.
  • In case (i) the monetary saving of the household sector Sm≡Yw−C is zero and the monetary profit of the business sector Qm≡C−Yw, too, is zero. The product market is cleared, i.e. X=O, in all three cases.
  • In case (ii) monetary saving Sm is positive and the business sector makes a loss, i.e. Qm is negative.
  • In case (iii) monetary saving Sm is negative, i.e. the household sector dissaves, and the business sector makes a profit, i.e. Qm is positive.#1
It always holds Qm≡−Sm, in other words, at the heart of the monetary economy is an identity: the business sector’s deficit (surplus) equals the household sector’s surplus (deficit). Put bluntly, loss is the counterpart of saving and profit is the counterpart of dissaving. This is the most elementary form of the macroeconomic Profit Law.

In case (ii)
  • the household sector ends up with a stock of money = deposits at the central bank and the business sector ends up with overdrafts,
  • the change of the household sector’s stock is given by ΔM=Yw−C,
  • the economy falls into recession.
In case (iii) it is just the other way round.

The household sector’s stock at the end of period t is given as the discrete numerical integral Mt=∑ΔM+M0 with M0=0.

Both the commonplace Quantity Theory and Hydraulic Monetarism is proto-scientific garbage.

Egmont Kakarot-Handtke


#1 Money and time

Related 'MMT: Richard Murphy’s battle-for-money hoax' and 'Nick Rowe’s soapbubbling about money' and 'Money: from silly stories to the true theory' and 'Rectification and generalization of MMT' and 'MMT sucks'.

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REPLY to Nick Rowe on Jun 26

You said in the intro: “If everyone wants to increase their stock of land, and the aggregate stock of land does not increase to satisfy their desire, there is nothing they can do in aggregate, and there is nothing they can do as individuals.”

To compare money with land is as gaga as it gets. MMTers don’t get tired of shouting from every rooftop that money is produced out of nothing at almost no cost. As a matter of principle, the economy NEVER runs out of transaction money if the central bank understands what their primary task is.#1, #2

The apparatus of supply-demand-equilibrium is inapplicable to fiat money. To speak of a money “supply” is the Moneybag Fallacy all over again.

If every household “wants to increase their stock of money” they reduce their consumption expenditures. In this case, C is less than Yw and the deposits of the household sector (= money) increase and the overdrafts of the business sector increase also because the business sector makes a loss and both sides of the central bank’s balance sheet are always equal.

The same holds for a gold-coin economy. If the business sector pays the workers in gold coins and they fully spend their income, i.e. C=Yw, then the coins return to the business sector. If the households save, i.e. C less than Yw, then the household sector’s stock of coins increases until the end of the period under consideration and the business sector’s stock decreases. The business sector makes a macroeconomic loss and this triggers a recession.

In the elementary production-consumption economy, nobody can stop the households from increasing their stocks of money as long as they receive a wage income. The form of money, fiat money or gold coins, is irrelevant.

The household sector’s stock of money develops according to the discrete numerical integral Mt=∑ΔM+M0, and the business sector’s stock is the exact mirror image except for the initial stock which, however, is zero in a fiat money system.#3

Economists never got the relationship between macroeconomic flows, differences of flows, change of stocks, and stocks straight.


#1 The creation and value of money and near-monies
#2 MMT: Richard Murphy’s battle-for-money hoax
#3 Reconstructing the Quantity Theory

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REPLY to Benjamin Cole, louis, Majromax, Jeremy Fox, Frank Restly, Roger Sparks on Jun 27

The history of money from the cowrie shell to bullion to coins to notes and to the credit card shows a clear tendency of progressive abstraction. The conclusion of the history of money is that money is information and that the concrete forms of monies are nothing but different data carriers. In the monetary economy of the digital age, the ultimate data carrier is the server at the central bank.

The pathetic blunder of monetary theory is the Fallacy of Insufficient Abstraction. Your idiocy consists of getting caught by the numerous outer forms of money. The abstract essence of the phenomenon is this: Money = Information. There is no ambiguity about money. Money is deposits at the central bank. Bank deposits are near money, not money.#2 And all other historical forms have to be treated as surrogates/substitutes/prefigurations of the real thing.

The theory of money is macro. Some people have realized this: “However, Post Keynesians and Circuitists both hold strongly to the view that the orthodox approach of firstly analyzing a barter economy, and then adding on money as an afterthought, is unhelpful as a foundation for any economic analysis.” (Fontana)

So, you are way behind the curve. The theory of money has to be built upon macrofoundations and not upon silly microeconomic barter or casino stories. The analytical framework is given by the ‘monetary theory of production’. (Keynes)

The remark “I have seen casino chips used for cash in Las Vegas” is not a contribution to the theory of money but proof that the representative economist has no idea about how the monetary economy works and how money functions. It is a wonder of Nature that a dead brain does not impair the faculty of blathering in the econblogosphere.


#1 Money: from silly stories to the true theory
#2 Basics of monetary theory: the two monies

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REPLY to Frank Restly on Jun 28

You say: “Simplistic stripped down models can aid in understanding ― it all depends on your audience.”

Because economics is a science the primary audience is the scientific community. The scientific community never had any problems with stripped down models but with FALSE models.

The story of how Zeus threw his thunderbolt at Typhon is NOT a stripped down model of how electricity works but a false model. The same holds for all barter stories. The defining characteristic of the economy is that labor time is exchanged for IOUs/money and money is exchanged for goods. The subject matter of economics is NOT barter or barter with a money-good but the ‘monetary theory of production’ (Keynes).

So, the most simplistic stripped down model in economics has to be a macro model. The ultimate methodological blunder of economics is microfoundations.

The scientific failure of economics is due to economists clinging to microfoundations. A scientist needs to read the microeconomic axioms#1 only once and knows for sure that they are proto-scientific garbage. And methodology tells us that if the axiomatic foundations are false the whole analytical superstructure is false.

Not to see that monetary theory has to be macrofounded is the disqualifying scientific blunder of Nick Rowe. It is not the only one.#3


#1 “HC1 economic agents have preferences over outcomes; HC2 agents individually optimize subject to constraints; HC3 agent choice is manifest in interrelated markets; HC4 agents have full relevant knowledge; HC5 observable outcomes are coordinated, and must be discussed with reference to equilibrium states.” (Weintraub)
#2 Buddha on the microeconomic men in the dark
#3 Nick Rowe’s soapbubbling about money
► Is Nick Rowe stupid or corrupt or both?
► I is never equal S and even Nick Rowe will eventually grasp it
► Cryptoeconomics ― the best of Nick Rowe’s spam folder
► Getting out of IS-LM = Getting out of despair
► Nick Rowe: Bury me at the end of coal-pit
► Macro poultry entrails reading
► Worthless Canadian model bricolage
► The Humpty Dumpty methodology

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REPLY to Jacques René Giguère on Jul 4

You say: “Money, cowrie shells or script, was formalized when the village grew too big and exceeded the Dunbar limit.”

You confound historical storytelling with scientific theory. A historical account of the various forms of money is NO substitute for the theory of money, just as the history of the burning of Rome, London, San Francisco etcetera is no substitute for the theory of thermodynamics.

The theory of money has to be embedded in a consistent macroeconomic framework or in what Keynes called the ‘monetary theory of production’.#1, #2

The subject matter of economics is how the actual monetary economy works and NOT historical storytelling.#3


#1 The ultimate ― analytical ― origin of money
#2 How money emerges out of nothing ― the functional account
#3 It has been said before but economists still don’t get it

June 13, 2018

Nick Rowe’s soap bubbling about money

Comment on Nick Rowe on ‘The Parable of the Fruit Trees’

Blog-Reference

“The apple producer produces apples. The banana producer produces bananas. The cherry producer produces cherries.” The economist produces proto-scientific garbage.

What is wrong with Nick Rowe’s depiction of the economy? The subject matter of economics is, as Keynes said, the ‘monetary theory of production’. This sets the frame for the theory of money. The fact that Nick Rowe clings to a long-defunct barter parable proves that he has no idea how the economy works.

As the correct analytical starting point, the elementary production-consumption economy is defined with this set of macroeconomic axioms: (A0) The objectively given and most elementary configuration of the economy consists of the household and the business sector, which in turn consists initially of one giant fully integrated firm. (A1) Yw=WL wage income Yw is equal to wage rate W times working hours. L, (A2) O=RL output O is equal to productivity R times working hours L, (A3) C=PX consumption expenditure C is equal to price P times quantity bought/sold X.

Under the conditions of market-clearing X=O and budget-balancing C=Yw in each period, the price is given by P=W/R (1). This is the most elementary form of the macroeconomic Law of Supply and Demand.

The price P is determined by the wage rate W, which takes the role of the nominal numéraire, and the productivity R. The quantity of money is NOT among the price determinants. This puts the commonplace Quantity Theory forever to rest.

What is needed for a start is two things: (i) a central bank which creates money on its balance sheet in the form of deposits, and (ii) a legal system which declares the central bank’s deposits as legal tender.

Deposit money is needed by the business sector to pay the workers who receive the wage income Yw per period. The need is only temporary because the business sector gets the money back if the workers fully spend their income, i.e., if C=Yw. Overdrafts are needed by the household sector for consumption expenditures if the households want to spend before they get their income.

For the case of a balanced budget C=Yw, the idealized transaction sequence of deposits/overdrafts of the household sector at the central bank over the course of one period is shown under the label Graphic. #1

The household sector’s deposits/overdrafts are ZERO at the beginning and end of the period. Money is continually created and destroyed during the period under consideration. There is NO such thing as a fixed quantity of money. The central bank plays an accommodative role and simply supports the autonomous market transactions between the household and the business sector.

From this follows the average stock of transaction money as M=κYw, with κ determined by the transaction pattern. In other words, the average stock of money M is determined by the autonomous transactions of the household and business sector and created out of nothing by the central bank. The economy NEVER runs out of money. There is NO such thing as “an excessive demand for one particular asset (the medium of exchange) relative to other assets.”

The transaction equation reads M=κPRL (2) in the case of budget balancing and market clearing. If employment L is doubled, the average stock of transaction money M doubles. If employment is halved, the average stock of transaction money M halves.

As long as the central bank finances the wage bill Yw=WL with money creation out of nothing, and with wage rate W and productivity R fixed, the price P does not move one iota according to (1). The average quantity of money M increases/decreases according to (2) but there is no inflation/deflation. Money is absolutely neutral. The creation of fiat money is the correct way of bringing money into the elementary production-consumption economy.

Egmont Kakarot-Handtke


#1 Graphic AXEC98 Idealized transaction pattern

Related 'The futile attempt to recycle Sraffa' and 'Money: from silly stories to the true theory' and 'Primary and Secondary Markets' and 'Exchange in the Monetary Economy' and 'Getting out of the economics swamp'.

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REPLY to Nick Rowe on Jun 14

Nick Rowe clarifies his parable: “It is not an excessive desire to accumulate assets that causes recessions; it is an excessive demand for one particular asset (the medium of exchange) relative to other assets. It’s about the composition of their portfolios of assets, not about the total size of that portfolio.”

The two lethal blunders of Nick Rowe are:
• to frame elementary economic activity as barter of stocks of goods a.k.a. assets,
• to frame money as an asset.

The elementary economy is about production and consumption. Input is a real flow = labor time per period, output is a real flow = apples/bananas/cherries per period, income is a nominal flow, and so on. Money is neither a stock nor a flow. Money is not a thing, not a real asset. Money is information. The information is stored on a medium, e.g. magnetic data carrier, a clay tablet, paper, a coin, etcetera. As a matter of principle, money cannot be scarce; only the physical data carrier can become scarce.

Money starts as a medium of transaction, as shown in the previous post, and it supports ANY level of economic activity. Problems arise if the households do not balance their budget, i.e., do not fully spend their period income, that is, if consumption expenditures C are less than wage income Yw. In this case, the household sector’s deposits at the central bank increase, and money morphs from a pure transaction medium to a store of value. #1

Precisely at this point, money becomes an asset, more precisely a financial asset. All real assets (apples, bananas, cherries) are zero at the beginning of the period and at the end of the period. The household sector’s portfolio consists solely of deposits at the central bank. This is how the monetary economy works. Nobody barter apples for bananas.

In the elementary production-consumption economy, the household sector can increase its stock of money if C is less than Yw. This has some obvious consequences for the business sector.

Monetary profit for the economy as a whole is defined as Qm≡C−Yw, and monetary saving as Sm≡Yw−C. It always holds Qm≡−Sm, in other words, the business sector’s surplus = profit equals the household sector’s deficit = dissaving. Vice versa, the business sector’s deficit = loss equals the household sector’s surplus = saving. This is the most elementary form of the macroeconomic Profit Law.

The simple fact of the matter is: as the household sector’s deposits at the central bank rise, so do the business sector’s overdrafts. The central bank’s balance sheet is always balanced. The business sector’s debt increases, that is, its deposits at the central bank = money become very, very scarce, and THIS causes a recession. The composition of output and changes in the composition of output (apples, bananas, cherries) are absolutely irrelevant.

Now, give Nick Rowe a banana, and send him back into the barter woods.


#1 Money and time
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REPLY to Nick Rowe and other commentators on Jun 15

In the two preceding posts, it has been argued that Nick Rowe’s barter parable lacks the elementary features of the monetary economy. Barter models have always been false and will always be false because the economy constitutes itself through the interaction of real and nominal variables.#1

It has been argued that the composition of output and changes in the composition of output (apples, bananas, cherries) are irrelevant for the money transactions between the household and the business sector and that they do not cause a recession. Only a reduction of total nominal demand causes a recession.

To see this, let us make a simple example. Imagine two firms, 1 and 2 for short. The wage rates in both firms are equal, so the total wage income is Yw=WL1+WL2, and total employment is L=L1+L2.

In the initial period, the respective prices are equal to unit wage costs, i.e., P1=W/R1 and P2=W/R2. Therefore, the profit in both firms is initially zero. The household sector spends total wage income on the two products, i.e., C=Yw, so there is neither saving nor dissaving.

The distribution of total consumption expenditures C=C1+C2 between the two products determines the production of the respective quantities and the respective labor inputs L1 and L2. It holds C=C1+C2=W(L1+L2)=WL=Yw.

So, if the household sector wants more of product 1, it spends more on it and less on product 2, such that C1 goes up and C2 goes down, and C remains unchanged. Accordingly, the business sector employs more workers in firm 1 and fewer in firm 2, such that L1 goes up and L2 goes down, and total employment L and total income Yw remain unchanged.

The relative price, i.e., the exchange relation between the two products, remains unchanged, i.e., P1/P2=R2/R1.

So, changes in the preferences between the two products are mirrored in changes in the distribution of labor input between the two firms. This configuration can go on forever. Problems arise only if the household sector reduces total consumption expenditures C, such that saving Sm≡C−Yw is now greater than zero. In this case, the business sector makes a loss and the economy goes into recession.


#1 The irreparable unreality of all ‘real’ models

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REPLY to Nick Rowe on Jun 16

The lethal flaw of The Parable of the Fruit Trees is the obsolete concept of direct barter. In the monetary economy, barter is indirect. In methodological terms, barter economists commit the Fallacy of Insufficient Abstraction.

In the monetary economy, agent 1 does not produce product 1 and barter directly with agent 2, who produces product 2.

In the monetary economy, agent 1 works in firm 1, which produces product 1 and gets the wage income Yw1, which is paid with a transfer of deposits at the central bank.

Analogous to agent 2.

Agent 1 then spends part of his income on product 2. Analogous to agent 2, who spends part of his income on product 1. This is how INDIRECT barter happens. By buying the other firm’s output, agent 1 barters “his” product with agent 2 and vice versa.

Indirect barter presupposes the existence of money, which is used (i) to pay the wage bill, and (ii) to buy the products. Money is created and destroyed in the process. The cycle can be repeated ad infinitum. Transaction money is NOT a stock and NOT an asset. It is zero at the beginning and the end of the cycle.

Changes in preferences lead to changes in output and production, and the allocation of labor between the two firms. Total spending and total employment, and the relative prices do NOT change in the process. Production adapts quantitatively to preferences.

Put simply, if agents want more of product 1 and less of product 2, more labor input has to be allocated to firm 1 and less to firm 2. The change in the composition of output has NO effect on the monetary transactions. Total income and total consumption expenditures remain unaffected.

Only if the household sector saves, which gradually increases its “stock of money” = average amount of deposits at the central bank, problems arise in the elementary production-consumption economy. Changes in the composition of output do not, they only lead to a reallocation of labor input.

Needless to emphasize that normally the two processes, growth/shrinkage of total production/output/average stock of transaction money, and change in the composition of output, are mixed. Analytically, though, they have to be strictly kept apart.

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REPLY to Henry Rech on Jun 16

You say: “There has to be money to start the transaction cycle. Money is needed for a purchase.”

Money is created in the act of transaction. Either the business sector creates an IOU and hands it over as wage payment to the household sector, or the central bank creates uno actu deposits for the wage receivers and corresponding overdrafts for the firms. The purchase of the output destroys money = deposits at the central bank. This is how fiat money works. The transactions themselves create/destroy money.

At the logical beginning of economic activity, there is neither a stock of goods nor of money. All physical stocks have to be produced, and money is produced (or ‘created out of nothing’) by the central bank/banking system. The economic analysis starts at zero. And this also holds for the theory of money.

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REPLY to Matthew Young on Jun 18

You say: “Simultaneous is a relative when money moves faster than fruit.”

The purpose of a parable is to make one point as clear as possible. For this purpose, the situation is radically simplified. Needless to emphasize that simplification and idealization are legitimate tools of analysis. However, as always, there is the possibility that the tool is misapplied and that the dilettantish scientific craftsman hits his thumb instead of the nail.

The problem with simplification/idealization is that it erroneously abstracts reality away instead of all the details that are indeed irrelevant to the question at issue. One of the most prominent examples of the Fallacy of Insufficient Abstraction is simultaneity. This is to eliminate time, and this is sufficient to relegate any model/parable into the Dancing-Angels-On-A-Pinpoint category.

Nick Rowe’s Parable of the Fruit Trees, too, falls into this category. Its lethal defect is long known as the Hahn problem: “The Hahn problem reveals three things. First, a perfect barter GE solution always exists in any ‘monetary’ model erected on Walrasian GE microeconomic foundations. Second, inessential monetary features are easily attached to perfect barter microeconomic foundations but are as easily removed, leaving the perfect barter solution intact. Third, attaching such inessential additions leads to a logical error; the misuse of language that produces invalid conclusions.”*

Nick Rowe and Matthew Young have not gotten the point that in the monetary economy, barter is indirect and that, therefore, the discussion of direct barter is pretty much a revival of the Dancing-Angels-On-A-Pinpoint disputations of the Middle Ages.


* Colin Rogers, Review of Political Economy

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REPLY to Nick Edmonds on Jun 19

You say: “One problem we have translating your parable to the real world is that asset prices are generally highly flexible (and arguably asset markets can be much more easily cleared by price movements than goods and labour markets).”

Not at all! The real problem is that economists have, after 200+ years, still no clue how the price and profit mechanism works.

To begin with, there are TWO fundamentally different types of markets.#1 In the elementary production-consumption economy, one has the flows of labor input and product output (apples, bananas, cherries per period). The quantity produced is, for a start, equal to the quantity sold and consumed. So the stock of products is zero at the beginning and the end of the period. The primary markets (e.g., product, labor) deal with flows.

If part of the output is not consumed in the same period, then there remains a stock of durable goods = real assets, e.g., houses. This is how the secondary markets come into existence.

The point is that the primary and secondary markets run on entirely different principles and that they can by no stretch of the scientific imagination be described with the barter parable nor with supply-demand-equilibrium. What Leijonhufvud has called the Totem-of-the-Micro has always been nincompoop economics.


#1 Primary and Secondary Markets

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REPLY to Nick Rowe on Jun 20

Nick Rowe concludes: “If we see recessions as a cluster of symptoms, that usually (but not always) go together, it’s not obvious how we define a ‘recession’, and whether we define it in terms of symptoms or of causes. And what’s true by definition and what’s true/false as a statement of fact. Bit like defining different illnesses.”

There is science, and it is binary true/false with NOTHING in between. Truth is well-defined for 2300+ years by formal and material consistency. And there is the large swamp of cargo cult science where, as Keynes said, “nothing is clear and everything is possible.”

In the swamp, vagueness, indeterminacy, inconclusiveness, confusion dressed up as complexity, unresolved contradictions, storytelling, filibuster, gossip, finicky scholasticism (Popper), known/unknown unknowns, and the Humpty Dumpty Fallacy are the prevailing components of communication. #1, #2, #3

This, of course, has not gone unnoticed: “The currently prevailing pattern of economic theorizing exhibits the following three characteristics: (1) a syncopated style of argument fluctuating back and forth between literary and symbolic modes of expression, (2) naive translation, or the loose paraphrasing of formulae into sentences, and (3) loose verbal reasoning for certain aspects of theoretical argumentation where explicit symbolic formulation is lacking.” (Dennis, 1982)

From Nick Rowe’s Parable of the Fruit Trees, nothing can be learned about how the price and profit mechanism works. This does not matter, though, because the purpose of economics has never been to clarify matters and to advance science but to keep everything and everybody in the swamp of inconclusiveness.

Vagueness and inconclusiveness protect the scientifically incompetent and secure the status quo because:
• “... you cannot prove a vague theory wrong.” (Feynman)
• “With enough fog emitted, almost anything becomes possible.” (Mirowski)

One will not find a single scientist in the swamp. #4 The swamp has always been the habitat of parable-tellers and cargo cult scientists.

Egmont Kakarot-Handtke


#1 It is better to be precisely right than roughly wrong
#2 “This is a tough question to adjudicate on scientific grounds since the issue is largely definitional and, as Lewis Carroll pointed out, everyone is entitled to his own definitions.” (Blinder)
#3 “’When I use a word,’ Humpty Dumpty said in rather a scornful tone, ‘it means just what I choose it to mean — neither more nor less.’ ‘The question is,’ said Alice, ‘whether you can make words mean so many different things.’ ‘The question is,’ said Humpty Dumpty, ‘which is to be master — that’s all’.”
#4 Getting out of the economics swamp

June 2, 2018

How economists missed out on the essential relationship of economics

Comment on Nick Rowe* on ‘Public Debt: A Global Perspective’

Blog-Reference

Roughly speaking, science is about relations. Economics, too, abounds with relationships: supply function, demand function, consumption function, the Phillips Curve, IS-LM, the global debt clock, #1, and so on.

Some of these relationships implicate trouble for the future: “As interest rates rise, there are bound to be spillovers from one sector to another with the linchpin being households. As interest rates rise, it is individual households that ultimately pay the debt service costs to government via taxes, pay to service their mortgages and buy the goods and services from corporations that keep the economy humming and allow the corporations to service their debt. It is a lot more inter-connected than you think which is why central bankers should be on edge.” (Nick Rowe)

True, indeed, but a bit trivial. A higher interest rate means more money for the borrowers. This has been known for five millennia. #2 To be sure, deficit spending and debt have an impact on the distribution of income and financial wealth.

However, economists talk much about the relationship between deficit spending and inflation or employment, but not so much about deficit spending and distribution. The reason is simple: economists know next to nothing about it. The ultimate reason, though, is that economists do not know what profit is. #3 This, of course, includes Nick Rowe.

The fact is that economists are incompetent scientists, and they thoroughly messed up macroeconomics.

To make the argument short, the axiomatically correct Profit Law for the economy as a whole is given as Qm≡Yd+(I−Sm)+(G−T)+(X−M), which reduces to Qm=(G−T) for Yd, I, Sm, X, M = 0. The reduced Profit Law says that the monetary profit of the business sector Qm is equal to the deficit (G−T) of the public sector, in a nutshell: Public Deficit = Private Profit.

As public debt grows, so does the financial wealth of the one-percenters. The same holds for private debt. And this is what can be observed over the last decades. Everybody has heard the two slogans: the rich get richer, and the worldwide debt grows exponentially. The exact relationship between the two phenomena is given by the Profit Law.

The Profit Law is the essential relationship for the monetary economy. The curious thing is that economists do not know it. #4 For 200+ years now, the Profit Theory is false and, by consequence, Distribution Theory. Nick Rowe’s discussion of the potential hazards of public debt shows that he is wandering around in the dark in blissful ignorance of the real threat.

Egmont Kakarot-Handtke


* "That was my post so if the post is ‘trivial’, I am entirely to blame."  Livio Di Matteo

#1 Economist The global debt clock
#2 Business Insider, The 5,000-year history of interest rates shows just how historically low US rates still are right now
#3 For details of the big picture, see cross-references Profit
#4 “A satisfactory theory of profits is still elusive.” (Desai, Palgrave Dictionary)

Related 'The demise of phony experts: macroeconomics is provably false' and 'Fact of life: your econ prof is scientifically incompetent' and 'Does economics matter more for bread or for circuses?' and 'Macro imbeciles' and 'The curious non-existence of profit in economics' and 'Profit: The most powerful formula of economics'.

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Source: Twitter


Source: Twitter

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REPLY to Frank Restly, Dean on Jun 4

After Livio Di Matteo’s opening trivialities: (i) the credit markets are interrelated, (ii) there are spillovers, (iii) central bankers should be on edge, some people feel encouraged to come forward with more of this brain-dead stuff.

Frank Restly: “Debt and deficits are not synonymous.”

Dean: “Your equation Qm=G−T Does not explain rising profit margins from about 1947 to 1969.” The Profit Law says nothing about profit margins but about macroeconomic profit. This should be obvious to everybody who can read an equation. The reduced equation highlights the contribution of public deficits to total macroeconomic profit. The point at issue is the relationship between deficits and distribution.

Frank Restly: “… a productivity boom is sufficient to raise corporate profits”. Macroeconomic profit does NOT AT ALL depend on productivity. This is a microeconomic Fallacy of Composition. You simply do NOT understand what profit is and what the Profit Law says. #1

Dean: “I just have yet to see any clear demonstration of the mechanics of how profits come into existence other than by an increase in financial claims.” You will NOT find this demonstration on the Worthless Canadian Blather blog. #2, #3

Frank Restly: “I believe what Egmont is referring to is retained/accrued profits or some form of marginal propensity to consume among recipients of profit. But his simple equation does not address this.” True, the reduced equation does not address this because the express purpose of the reduced equation is to ISOLATE the effects of public deficits. What you obviously do NOT understand is that the complete equation Qm≡Yd+(I−Sm)+(G−T)+(X−M) contains distributed profit Yd and, by implication, retained profit. These issues have been treated elsewhere.#4


#1 For details of the big picture, see cross-references Profit
#4 The Profit Theory is False Since Adam Smith. What About the True Distribution Theory?

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REPLY to Frank Restly, Livio Di Matteo on Jun 4

Frank Restly: “This is a static equation in that there is no time lag indicated between a government/person going into debt and increases in macroeconomic profits being realized, which is quite unrealistic.”

The time dimension has been left out here in order to focus on the crucial distributional relationship, which is given with Public Deficit (in period t) = Private Profit (in period t). Time has been extensively dealt with elsewhere. #1, #2

You maintain: “… if you want to define "macroeconomic profit" this way, that’s your prerogative.”

The foundational concepts of economics have to be consistently defined. This is done by axiomatization. There are no definitional prerogatives in science; this delusion is called Humpty Dumpty Fallacy, and it is endemic among brain-dead economists. #3

The Humpty Dumpty Fallacy is one of the main reasons why economics is, after 200+ years, still at the proto-scientific level.

Livio Di Matteo says, “I do not see how deficits are equivalent to profits.” It could be perhaps a good idea to study serious economics#4 and no longer hang out with the econ-clowns of WCI.

Livio Di Matteo says, finally: “The view of deficits as profit also does not explain to me why the business community is usually at the forefront of calls for deficit reduction and balanced budgets.” This phenomenon has been addressed several times elsewhere. #5, #6


#1 Essentials of Constructive Heterodoxy: The Market
#2 The Synthesis of Economic Law, Evolution, and History
#3 Profit, income, and the Humpty Dumpty Fallacy
#4 Profit theory in less than 5 minutes
#5 Austerity and the idiocy of political economists
#6 Austerity: Who takes the little man for a ride?

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REPLY to Dean on Jun 5

Your example points in the right direction. However, it suffers from the Fallacy of Insufficient Abstraction.

In order to go back to the ultimate foundations of economics, the elementary production-consumption economy is, for a star,t defined by three macroeconomic axioms (Yw=WL, O=RL, C=PX), two conditions (X=O, C=Yw), and two definitions (monetary profit/loss Qm≡C−Yw, monetary saving/dissaving Sm≡Yw−C). #1

It always holds Qm≡−Sm, in other words, the business sector’s surplus = profit equals the household sector’s deficit = dissaving, and, vice versa, the business sector’s deficit = loss equals the household sector’s surplus = saving. This is the most elementary form of the macroeconomic Profit Law.

Starting from the elementary production-consumption economy, complexity is then successively increased. To make matters short, the axiomatically correct relationships are given here without further explanation. It holds, with Qm monetary profit/loss, Sm monetary saving/dissaving, I investment expenditures, G government spending, T taxes, X export, M import, Yd distributed profit:
(i) Qm≡−Sm in the elementary production-consumption economy,
(ii) Qm≡I−Sm in the elementary investment economy,
(iii) Qm≡(G−T)+(I−Sm) in the investment economy with government deficit/surplus,
(iv) Qm≡Yd+(X−M)+(G−T)+(I−Sm) in the open economy with distributed profit.

From (i)/(ii) follows that saving and investment are NEVER equal and that ALL I=S/IS-LM models are false since Keynes/Hicks. In other words, macroeconomics has been dead for 80+ years, and After-Keynesians have not realized it.

From (iii) follows that ― given business sector investment I and household sector monetary saving Sm ― Public Deficit = Private Profit. The government deficit (co-)determines the cumulative stock of financial assets in the business sector. The sum of public deficits over time accumulates to ever-growing public debt.

Eq. (iv) defines the relationship between deficits, macroeconomic profit, and growing debt. Economists do not understand it from Adam Smith/Karl Marx onward. Economics is the worst embarrassment in the history of modern science, and the so-called Worthwhile Canadian Initiative is an integral part of it. #2


#1 Macro for retarded economists
#2 Is Nick Rowe stupid or corrupt or both?

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AXEC109i